I am in a new office and the culture here says that one does not issue credit memos when needed, instead you process an entire credit/rebill and present a new invoice to the client. I have never heard of such a thing, outside of exception processing or unposted invoices.
I find this practice counterproductive and mis-leading for our bank. When we identify a problem with an invoice after 30 days, we should be able to issue a credit memo so the client can apply it to the originally 'dated' invoice and get it paid. When you credit/rebill, the invoice drops off the aging and shows up again as a different transaction. This also gives the client a new start date to begin the aging process before payment.
I want to make sure I am not crazy, as the staff here is adamant that we should never do that.